John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with GOD, and the Word WAS God,
All reputable translations say this - affirming He WAS GOD.
To affirm He was 'a god' is to affirm polytheism - a 'Big God' and a 'little god' - 2 'gods'.
NO ARTICLE?? - Notice that there is no article in John 1:6, 12, 13, 18; Matt. 5:9; 6:2; Luke 1:35, 78; 2:40; John 3:2-21; 9:16-33; Rom. 1:7, 17, 18; 1 Cor. 1:30; 15:10; Phil.2:11-13; Titus 1:1 - yet THESE are 'GOD'.
See also: Mt. 4:3-4; 12:28; Lk. 20:37-38; Jn. 3:2; 12:3; Acts 5:29-30; Rom. 2:16-17; 3:5,22,23; 4:2-3.
King of Jews - John 19:21 - here 'king' is the predicate noun proceeding a copulative verb (eimi - I am) - yet it it NOT 'a king' - but THE KING.
See also 'the Christ' - Matt. 16:16; Acts 26:23
Isa. 43:10 - no other god with God
Deut. 4:35 - no other god
Deut. 32:9 - no other god
Colwell's rule: form "a definite Rule for the use of the article in the Greek New Test., Journal of Biblical Literature, LII, 1933, 13:21
"A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb. ...The opening verse of John's gospel contains one of the MANY passages where this rule suggests the translation of a predicate as a definite noun... The absence of the article does NOT make the predicate indefinite or qualitative when it preceeds the verb; it is indefinite in this position only when the context demands it.
NOTE: the New World Translation, 1951 edition... has a list of 'parallels' - however they are NOT parallel in Grammar because the predicate noun stands AFTER THE VERB IN THESE - here in John 1:1 it stands BEFORE the verb - and hence the rule above is applied. The WORD WAS GOD (lit. and GOD was the Word).
Form of God or back to Contents